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Why can foods from distinct origins taste similar? Do they share some compounds or do distinct compounds share homologous parts?

Why is it that wines can be described as tasting of other fruits, such as melons or strawberries? Why do some stouts taste of coffee or chocolate (excluding, of course,those where these ingredients have been added)? My ideas were- -small amounts of identical compounds can be found in both foods. -they each contain distinct compounds, but whose molecules share some homology, so activate the same olfactory receptors -the compounds are different but the same olfactory receptors can be activated by a small range different ligands. I wonder if a flavorist or someone who knows lots about olfaction could clear this up for me.
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Categories: Human Body.

Tags: Food, taste, flavour, beer, wine, receptor, olfaction, ligand.

 

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Georg says:

First: Most "taste" is smell!

In general, very different molecules can taste/smell the same,

but this is not very common.

 

But the main "problem" You speak of arises from natures "laziness".

Something proved good, is used throughout all flora and fauna.

This is true for a lot of chemicals in nature, including aromas.

Especially in biologically related plants You will find always the same compunds, 

only the mixture ratios differ. Nevertheless You can differentiate the taste.

Georg

 

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Tags: Food, taste, flavour, beer, wine, receptor, olfaction, ligand.

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posted on 2011-01-20 21:19:30 | Report abuse

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doctorhoax says:

Thanks!

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Tags: Food, taste, flavour, beer, wine, receptor, olfaction, ligand.

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posted on 2011-01-20 21:24:24 | Report abuse


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